So lets start off by saying I believed it to be a credible threat. It kind of sounds like maybe it wasn't from what you are both hinting at. I could have had 5 galleons roll off the line the turn I finished Astro (again went with 4 because wasn't sure of SD). I had to do this while not whipping too much for suspicion reasons and I whipped NONE the turn I got astro. Scooters threat of several galleons was very plausible to me.
I am willing to put an example to an impartial jury and may do so myself is someone can recommend a random corner of the internet for such a test that isn't reddit. I realize no one will take me up on this because its laughable I wouldn't win. And yes this is a challenge. I think for some reason people are holding NAPs as sacrosanct beyond the law or history. Again, not being an old time player I may be missing something here. But I am very much feeling a double standard.
Lets stick to this example Q. 3 cities or 1/6 IS duress. You can try to alter the scenario (IE set up a strawman), but the actual scenario I believed IS duress. Having studied such things you know you therefore can't win that argument so you are attempting to deflect.
I believed Scooter was ready for war. He may not have been, but I believed it. Again, it sounds like maybe he wasn't, but the mental state is important for law purposes and my mental state believed in the threat and found it credible.
Historically there is a reason the Royal Navy had a home fleet. IE a fleet they kept to defend their home. Their next most important or most important time period dependent was the Mediterranean fleet. They really didn't want people sailing an army to them because they would then lose. During the war of 1812 the US believed that due to the Napoleonic wars and their own hubris they could go to war with Britain. There were points MAYBE they could have succeeded and at the end they did win a big battle, but even with holding a lot of their fleet back Britain had a laughable amount of naval supremacy. Sure US could commerce raid a bit, but they did get their capital razed. After the war of 1812 the US started building a half dozen ship of the line knowing while it couldn't compete in a global sense with Britain they could have a credible defense as Britain couldn't send all their ships against the US. This bought them better leverage in negotiations going forward. US was able to do things like firm up the border in Oregon because of this much easier.
I did not compare myself to indigenous people and nations. I am sorry if anyone took offense. I did use them as obvious example of unfair treaties that no one would blame for violating. I used them as a basic example everyone could empathize with to establish that the base logic is sound.
I want to take the China example as you've all just been educated a little more in naval history and I apologize as I should have seen this flaw in my logic earlier. China was a large empire with lots of resources. If you take away internal issues they EASILY were THE major power in Asia. Again real history is a lot sloppier. However they lacked a specific set of technologies. (sidebar alternate history of if they hadn't gone isolationist would probably have had equal or superior naval technology). While Britain may seem by far stronger I would argue IN the area China was except for said tech. Again, remember your history Britain isn't going to yolo its fleet around the world. So China IS a dominant power, but lacking key technologies to adequately defend itself against a specific type of attack by a technologically superior foe even in the relatively small amounts available in that area. So were the treaties with China unequal because Britain used their technology against overall a superior foe (again locally China could bring far more troops and resources to bear)? Again, I'm walking the logic here.
Ok now lets imagine the Chinese get the American navy of approximately that same time period after China has lost the first war. 6 ship of the line of various rates and a dozen Frigates. Does the second Opium war happen when China tries to go back on that treaty? I am betting China goes back on their treaties without a second Opium war and no one blames China for it.
Now I think it would have been foolish to ask to be attacked by a superior foe. Sure in stories it sounds cool, but again historical examples are not great for people who have gone that route. I think a MUCH fairer question would be should I have negotiated AFTER I got a navy. IE now we both have a gun. How far do you trust someone who pointed a gun at you? Not far enough to turn your gun away.
I am willing to put an example to an impartial jury and may do so myself is someone can recommend a random corner of the internet for such a test that isn't reddit. I realize no one will take me up on this because its laughable I wouldn't win. And yes this is a challenge. I think for some reason people are holding NAPs as sacrosanct beyond the law or history. Again, not being an old time player I may be missing something here. But I am very much feeling a double standard.
Lets stick to this example Q. 3 cities or 1/6 IS duress. You can try to alter the scenario (IE set up a strawman), but the actual scenario I believed IS duress. Having studied such things you know you therefore can't win that argument so you are attempting to deflect.
I believed Scooter was ready for war. He may not have been, but I believed it. Again, it sounds like maybe he wasn't, but the mental state is important for law purposes and my mental state believed in the threat and found it credible.
Historically there is a reason the Royal Navy had a home fleet. IE a fleet they kept to defend their home. Their next most important or most important time period dependent was the Mediterranean fleet. They really didn't want people sailing an army to them because they would then lose. During the war of 1812 the US believed that due to the Napoleonic wars and their own hubris they could go to war with Britain. There were points MAYBE they could have succeeded and at the end they did win a big battle, but even with holding a lot of their fleet back Britain had a laughable amount of naval supremacy. Sure US could commerce raid a bit, but they did get their capital razed. After the war of 1812 the US started building a half dozen ship of the line knowing while it couldn't compete in a global sense with Britain they could have a credible defense as Britain couldn't send all their ships against the US. This bought them better leverage in negotiations going forward. US was able to do things like firm up the border in Oregon because of this much easier.
I did not compare myself to indigenous people and nations. I am sorry if anyone took offense. I did use them as obvious example of unfair treaties that no one would blame for violating. I used them as a basic example everyone could empathize with to establish that the base logic is sound.
I want to take the China example as you've all just been educated a little more in naval history and I apologize as I should have seen this flaw in my logic earlier. China was a large empire with lots of resources. If you take away internal issues they EASILY were THE major power in Asia. Again real history is a lot sloppier. However they lacked a specific set of technologies. (sidebar alternate history of if they hadn't gone isolationist would probably have had equal or superior naval technology). While Britain may seem by far stronger I would argue IN the area China was except for said tech. Again, remember your history Britain isn't going to yolo its fleet around the world. So China IS a dominant power, but lacking key technologies to adequately defend itself against a specific type of attack by a technologically superior foe even in the relatively small amounts available in that area. So were the treaties with China unequal because Britain used their technology against overall a superior foe (again locally China could bring far more troops and resources to bear)? Again, I'm walking the logic here.
Ok now lets imagine the Chinese get the American navy of approximately that same time period after China has lost the first war. 6 ship of the line of various rates and a dozen Frigates. Does the second Opium war happen when China tries to go back on that treaty? I am betting China goes back on their treaties without a second Opium war and no one blames China for it.
Now I think it would have been foolish to ask to be attacked by a superior foe. Sure in stories it sounds cool, but again historical examples are not great for people who have gone that route. I think a MUCH fairer question would be should I have negotiated AFTER I got a navy. IE now we both have a gun. How far do you trust someone who pointed a gun at you? Not far enough to turn your gun away.