@SevenSpirits
Thanks for the reply! At the moment, I'm just using my gut to guide decisions and checking myself using your numbers. Your post made me want to think things through for myself.
QUESTION:
What is the value of 1/T?
MODEL:
*Since 1 or 1/T can contribute to only one investment at a time, we can model economic growth in Civ4 as a single sequence of investments I1->I2->I3->....
*Each investment will have a COMPOUNDING TIME, a number of turns before that investment actually starts to earn interest.
*Each investment will have an INTEREST RATE, the actual return once that investment starts compounding.
SIMPLIFYING ASSUMPTIONS
*Assume that all investments have the same interest rate, the MEAN INTEREST RATE.
*Assume that all investments have the same compounding time, the MEAN COMPOUNDING TIME
DISCUSSION
The mean interest rate, I think, is determined by the player. That is, the player sets the goal of maintaining a certain growth rate and tailors his decisions to achieve that growth rate. In many cases, the player aims to maximize the growth rate, so game data is useful to determine an upper bound on the mean interest rate.
The mean compounding time, I think, is either a constant or a function of the number of game turns elapsed. Much of the micro-strategy in Civ4 comes from working to minimize the compounding time on investments. Compounding time, however, is limited by the game design - the game is designed with a certain rhythm in mind.
I don't have enough experience with Civ4 to make claims about the game rhythm, but I do think that it varies by era. A player who pays attention to average time to tech in a given era or building cost as a function of average city production should be able to make a decent estimate of the mean compounding time for that era.
The important thing to note, however, is that the mean compounding time is
never one. This brings us to your numbers.
Let's work normal speed, and take it as given that 1=2 in 30T. This is an estimate of the mean interest rate. Please note that if investments compound per turn, then the normal speed interest rate is
not 3.53% as in quick speed. Instead it is 2^(1/30)=2.38%
which I think foreshadows the importance of a mean compounding time >1. I suspect that the mean interest rate is the same or similar when comparing quick and normal speed. It is the mean compounding time that scales between the two settings and gives 1=2 in 20T (quick) <=> 1=2 in 30T (normal).
As you explained in your post, taking into account the compounding time explains why 1/t > 30. 1/t=30 iff we estimate the mean compounding time >= 30T, which seems to me to be false even in the very early stages of the game. Unless you're playing FFH2, maybe
And if the mean compounding time is >= 30 then how does 1=2 in 30T make sense?
But I'm not sure I agree that using the per turn compound interest rate is any better. In what real game situation will your 1/t contribute to a sequence of investments that compound each turn on average?
It seems better to make a rough estimate of the mean compounding time (if beakers, say, look at average tech rate for the era) and derive accordingly. I'll jump right to the conclusion, but if you're interested the math is below.
To calculate the value of 1/T
Step 1: Estimate N, the mean compounding time
Step 2: Cacluate I, the mean interest rate: I=1/N * [ 2^[1/(31/N -1)] - 1 ]
Step 3: Calculate r, the compounding coefficient : r=(1+NI)^-1/N
Step 4: Calculate S, the present value of 1/T: S=1 + [r^2 * (1+NI)] / (1-r)
Here's a spreadsheet for you to play with
Value of 1/T
Note that values for N approaching 30 lead to very high interest rates. We really are assuming that investments double every 30T, so if the mean compounding time approaches 30, those are some darn good investments!
What do we get for all this trouble? You should probably round down to 40 rather than up on normal speed.
MATH
Let's say in a certain era we get a tech every N turns on average. If the size of our investment relative to the size of our economy is small, the investment will stagnate for
N turns, then earn interest
I thereafter.
In brief, the value of 1 compounding every N turns at interest rate I on turn tN-1 is V_tN-1=(1+NI)^(t-1).
Proof by induction or words to see the pattern:
1 on turn N-1 is still 1. It then starts earning interest at I per turn, so after 2N-1 turns we have 1+NI. This investment then earns interest at (1+NI)I per turn, so on turn 3N-1 turns we have 1+NI+(1+NI)NI or (1+NI)(1+NI)=(1+NI)^2. To drive the pattern home, on turn 4N-1 we have (1+NI)^2+(1+NI)^2*NI=(1+NI)^2*(1+I)=(1+NI)^3.
Let's interpolate (substitute T=tN-1) between compounding periods and say the value of 1 on turn T is V_T=(1+NI)^[(T+1)/N - 1]
Now we can calculate I in terms of N.
If 1=2 after 30turns then
2=V_30=(1+NI)^[(30+1)/N - 1]
So
I=1/N * [ 2^[1/(31/N -1)] - 1 ]
See how our formula reduces as expected when N=1
I=2^[1/30] -1=2.34%
And so, FINALLY, we can get to something useful - what is the value of 1/t?
If the value of x is on turn T is V_T(x)=x*(1+NI)^[(T+1)/N - 1]
then we find the present value of a single resource T turns from now by solving 1=VT*(1+NI)^[(T+1)/N-1]
or VT= (1+NI)^-1[(T+1)/N-1]=(1+NI)^[1-(T+1)/N].
The value of 1/t is then the infinite series S=1 + V1 + V2 ...
I'll do this fast, and check it when I'm done,
Form a geometric sequence with r=(1+NI)^-1/N:
S=1+(1+NI)^[1-(2/N)] + (1+NI)^[1-(3/N)] + (1+NI)^[1-4/N)]
S/(1+NI)=1/(1+NI) + r^2 + r^3 + r^3 ...
S/[r^2(1+NI)]=1/[r^2(1+NI) + 1/(1-r)
So S=1 + [r^2 * (1+NI)] / (1-r)
When N=1, I=2.34%,then r=(1+.0234)^-1=0.9771 so S= 1 + [(0.9771)^2*(1+0.0234)]/(1-0.9771) = 42.7
with lots of rounding so I think it checks out.